Your Calculus teacher would say yes, actually, if she were qualified to teach it. Whether or not you can use a number that is infinitely long is not the discussion here. It's about if .9... == 1, which it does. I suppose that you are willing to accept that 2/4 == 4/8 == 16/32 == 1/2, but they don't look the same, either. What's wrong with this one? There are several proofs to the situation already mentioned. It's no logical quandary.
EDIT: Man, Raist, don't ninja me.







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