Ugh.......*cries*, *gives up*

I hereby refute everything I have posted on this thread before now. I think I have devised a way (and a rather simple way) for me to fathom this possibility.

*Note: RS stands for Riemann Sum

.999.... can be rewritten as RS(i=1->infinity) 9/(10^i) which can further be rewritten:

lim (n->infinity) RS(i=1->n) 9/(10^i)=lim (n->infinity) RS(i=1->n) (9/10)(1/10^(n-1))

which sets up a property of Riemann sums, so this equation becomes:

lim (n->infinity) (9/10)(1-(1/10^n))/(1-(1/10))

As n->infinity, the denominator of 1/10^n become larger and larger, and the quotient gets closer and closer to zero, and thus lim (n->infinity) 1/10^n=0. So we have:

(9/10)(1-0)/(9/10)=1

And that is the jest of it. I guess I have no more arguement left in me to the contrary. You can't fight calculus proving something.