The one thing I don't get is that statement was:
Now, I'm not one to criticise anyone's grammar, but the scenario was clearly in the Past tense. Yet the "I have asked" section is clearly present tense. There's definitely a clash here between the timelines (Starting to sound like XIII-2 here)Quote:
I have asked a friend to call me during a date so I'd have an excuse to leave. It backfired
Now, every other statement which was a Bley's patented lie was in the correct tense for the statement. This one however, is not. Given that the story was before Rantz was even on EoFF which is quite an eternity, why then would it be in present?
I'm not saying that it's a truth, YET. Bleys could have mixed it up by deliberately confusing tenses to throw us, however I do doubt Bleys would be so conniving that only on our last go, would he do this trick.
On the other hand, Rantz could have made a slight error in his statement that was accidental. But at the end of the day, Bleys, for me, wouldn't have confused tenses together. Even if this was a Bleys lie, and and Bleys fully intended for it to be "I have asked", Rantz is with Shorty now in the present tense. I don't think Bleys would make it that strikingly obvious.
Thoughts Team?